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ProtestantismMiracles & the NT
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Mark's 'hearsay' is the earliest gospel - from which Matthew borrowed ~heavily~. That would make Matthew hearsay too. If Matthew was an eyewitness, he wouldn't have needed to get his information from Mark. Several suppositions here, Migisi. First...it's not been PROVEN that Mark's Gospel was first. It is BELIEVED that Mark's Gospel was first, based on literary analysis. Yet even this analysis and the historical consensus leaves open the possibility that Matthew wrote Q, which Mark then used. Second...if Mark got most of his information from Q and the Apostle Peter (which most conservative and moderate scholars accept), then why wouldn't Matthew use his Gospel. Why reinvent the wheel? Your argument rests on an assumption that Matthew would write a dramatically different account. If Mark's is accurate, why wouldn't Matthew borrow from it? I think Matthew looked at Mark's account and thought it was solid, but too brief. So, he added to it, based on his experience, knowledge, and (I believe) the leading of the Holy Spirit. (I of course am not attempting to prove the latter, as that is a faith statement). » Migisi - Mark and Matthew In response to Mark and Matthew posted by BrianTubbs:. I will grant that he [Mark] likely did not witness most of the events he writes about. . Mark didn't witness any events. In 120 CE, Papias (bishop of Hierapolis), wrote "Mark, having become Peter's interpreter, wrote down accurately whatever he remembered of what was said or done by the Lord, however not in order." Papias said that he'd heard this from a 'presbyter' (more 'hearsay). This might explain why Mark's accounts are abbreviated compared to Mat and Luke, and sometimes contradict. Allegedly, Peter (or Mark) was relying solely on his own recollections. . First...it's not been PROVEN that Mark's Gospel was first. It is BELIEVED that Mark's Gospel was first, based on literary analysis. . The concensus of today's NT scholars says that Mark's gospel is the earliest. Others contend that Matthew was first - hence his comes first in the NT. Since neither of the gospels are dated and signed, it's a toss up. I suspect that there are documents which predate both, but they weren't canonized by the church, so they were tossed aside. Maybe the 'Q' document met that fate (if such a document or collection even existed, that is)? . Yet even this analysis and the historical consensus leaves open the possibility that Matthew wrote Q, which Mark then used. . Who can say with certainty that Q was a written document? Where is this hypothetical 'Q'? No early church writer makes any reference to such a document. Other early Christian 'sayings' collections have been unearthed (and poo pooed by churches), but no papyrus copy of this Q has been discovered. If it is discovered in the future, will it be dismissed as heresy or fakery like the other 'sayings' collections have been? The hypothesis (I emphasize that word) of a second source is merely the apologists' attempt to find an acceptable solution to the synoptic problem - to explain away contradictions and conflicts in the Gospels. Until it's in hand, Q remains a hypothesis, and questions about who used it when will remain forever unanswered. . I think Matthew looked at Mark's account and thought it was solid, but too brief. So, he added to it, based on his experience, knowledge, . So, you agree that Matthew used Mark as his basic outline? Mark's would have to be written first for Matthew to use it, right? -- posted by Migisi
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Matthew probably had no intention of writing and publishing a Gospel until late in his life, when it became apparent that Jesus wasn't coming back anytime soon. So, he looked at his records (Q) and Mark's Gospel - and put his together. I cannot prove my theory, but it DOES fit with the facts. It's a reasonable supposition.
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Migisi, it's a shame you've bought into the Elaine Pagels / Dan Brown school of conspiracy theories. The first and second century church was not organized sufficiently to have the kind of conspiracy apparatus that you and others claim. The early church was NOT a "monolith" or singular organization in ANY sense of the term, until the Council of Nicea. » Migisi - Conspiracies Everywhere In response to Conspiracies Everywhere posted by BrianTubbs:
-- posted by Migisi
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My counter-point to the above misconception is that the early church was nowhere near organized enough to pull off such a conspiracy. The church at Jerusalem was pretty much destroyed when the Romans sacked that city in AD 70 (or CE 70 as you secularist politically correct types like to put it » pink101 - Conspiracies Everywhere In response to Conspiracies Everywhere posted by BrianTubbs:
-- posted by pink101
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Depends on what century we're talking about. If the first century, yes, you're incorrect. Your supposition and interpretation become more correct with each passing century until the Protestant Reformation. But if you go back to the beginning - back to the first century - what you have are congregations spread out throughout the Roman world. » pink101 - People in Power In response to People in Power posted by BrianTubbs:
-- posted by pink101
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Were there leaders in the local assemblies? Of course. Were these leaders powerful enough or strong enough to create a new religion and force it on the people who claimed to be Christians? Absolutely not. « Previous 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 Next » Please follow the guidelines set forth in the Suite101 Posting Etiquette when adding to the discussion. |
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